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Latest Comments3 Comments
Risk-Based Asset Allocation: Worth the Effort
As you say, most individual investors do not care about standard deviation or volatility. I wouldn’t say the same for institutional investors, however. But most investors certainly do care about risk: they hate loosing money. Professional money managers, from a business continuity standpoint and because of their responsibility to manage clients’ money in a manner that would allow them both to sleep well at night, must try to control portfolio downside. Risk-based asset allocation does just that.
The risk budgeting approach does not necessarily produce lower risk portfolios: in quiet markets one would in fact increase the aggressive holdings weight, which would actually produce a portfolio that does better than its static asset mix counterpart.
As we know, positive and negative returns are asymmetrical in dollar terms and to recoup a 25% loss we need 30% gain, a phenomenon also known as volatility drag. Clients do not need to understand all the terminology, but their portfolio manager must. A risk-efficient downside-managed portfolio will generate better returns in the long term.
Risk-Based Asset Allocation: Worth the Effort
Risk-Based Asset Allocation: Worth the Effort
You are absolutely right, one cannot use overlapping intervals to calculate autocorrelation because the metric will be naturally upward biased. The 252-day chart is there for illustration only, as you correctly observed. In autocorrelation calculation for observations to be IID, I used non-overlapping intervals, 21-day to be exact. In addition, to account for kurtosis, 3sd and higher events, such a few trading days in October 1987 were taken out since tail events are not persistent. An alternative, of course, is to use rank correlation.
I also appreciate your observation on the degree of equivalence of trend-following and risk-based investing. We have stared at risk for a long time and at some point I investigated the source of good backtested returns we were observing. A natural hypothesis, as you stated, would be to assume that a significant portion of it comes from trending. However, there are several aspects that make risk-based approach quite different from trend-following.
- Firstly, the turnover is very low (typically we observe 2-3 trades a year in the core portion of our portfolios with about 5-7 ETFs).
- Secondly, correlation to managed futures is in the low 20's (part of it is of course comes from not using short ETFs in the core portion).
- Finally, but most importantly, is that as a return estimation input of our portfolio construction engine we use equilibrium returns, or as a rough approximation, returns that are proportionate to risk. Magnitude of historical returns don't even enter the equation, only return volatility. We thus avoid chasing past returns, something a traditional mean variance allocation tool might do if it uses historical returns.